Revelation 12 | Marian Significance

Are there any other Protestant-rooted individuals out there who have taken the time to really examine the significance of Mary to the Church from a Biblical point of view? I was reared in a strictly Evangelical home and brought up to believe that all Catholic doctrine (especially Marian devotion) was heretical hogwash. Now I am convinced to the contrary.

Having read Presbyterian-turned-Catholic theologian Scott Hahn’s amazing spiritual biography, ‘Rome, Sweet Home’, I was presented with Catholic doctrine in a way I had never considered it, i.e. Biblically-based arguments to defend their truth. Consequently I was lead to do a lot of digging of my own and realised that Mariology is as much Bible-centred as any other cornerstone of the faith.

Revelation 12 is the well-known ‘Woman clothed with the sun’ vision of St John, but note how this chapter is basically a commentary on the Genesis 3v15 Messianic promise. When viewed in the light of this, ‘The Woman’ must be Mary. Protestant exposition invariably identifies the man-child and the Dragon in Revelation 12 as INDIVIDUALS — Christ and Satan respectively, but the Woman of the vision is still interpreted as a purely corporate entity, i.e the Church/Israel. Theological inconsistency….

There is a lot of other Scriptural evidence for Mariology, plus almost two thousand years of ecclesiastical tradition to back it up. Mary was already being acknowledged as a lynchpin of redemption by Iranaeus as early as the mid-1st century AD, the sub-apostolic era. Protestant reformers sadly tended to throw the baby out with the bathwater in matters like this, I believe, and like Scott Hahn, we would do better to be more like Martin Luther ‘in reverse’ when it comes to soundly expounded such truths.

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The woman and the dragon

I’m not sure it’s that clear that the woman in Rev.12 can be identified with Mary, though it’s very hard to be confident about the interpretation of a text like this.

1. I have never been persuaded by the argument that Gen.3:15 is a messianic prophecy. Why do we need to see in this anything more than the idea that there will be hostility between humankind and snakes? We instinctively allegorize the verse, but is there really any reason for doing so? Even if Rev.12 is an allusion to it, this does not necessarily mean that the author of Genesis meant it to have this sort of prophetic significance - or that John thought he was writing a commentary on this verse. The serpent is not identified with Satan - it is merely the craftiest of all the beasts. And the woman is Eve, not Mary. The natural way to read ‘offspring’ is either as the immediate singular child of Eve and the serpent or as their plural descendants. Is there anything else in the New Testament to suggest that the early church understood the passage as a messianic prophecy?

2. The dragon may be Satan but it is also closely associated the beast, which likewise has seven heads and ten horns (13:1; 17:3). The focus is certainly on Roman opposition not just to the messiah but also to the early church community. I don’t think, therefore, that the argument that the woman must be an individual carries much weight. It seems to me far more likely that the woman represents persecuted Israel or the messianic community. If it is Mary, who are the rest of her children (12:17)?

3. I would have thought that the ‘birth’ of the male child refers not to the literal birth of the Messiah but to the resurrection and exaltation of Christ to the right hand of God. Ps.2:9 is quoted at Rev.6:5. Ps.2:7 has the Lord saying to the king, ‘You are my Son; today I have begotten you’, which Paul connects with the resurrection in Acts 13:32-33. This is why the child is immediately caught up to the throne of God when he is born.

I also have some more general concerns about the ‘usefulness’ of this sort of developed doctrine of Mary for what we are calling, for better or worse, the emerging church. I can see that there is some ecumenical value in exploring a spirituality that has Mary as its focus, but I doubt that this will help us either to understand the essence of Christianity better or to make sense of it for the wider world. Sorry to be so negative, but this sounds to me too much like doctrine for the sake of doctrine. In my view we need less rather than more of this sort of thing.

Rabbit holes and spacious vistas

Discussion on linkage between Gen 3:15 & Rev 12 (the woman) plays dangerously to all my compulsions and (on this website) probably to the inner compulsions of many. (Might have been better if you had kept quiet, Andrew!) But just to get this one out of the way - I’m interested in why we should ‘instinctively allegorise’ Gen 3:15. Maybe the instinct is well founded. After all, did God really need to tell us that snakes are dangerous (and not even all of them!) in a prophecy/curse after the momentous event of makind’s primal rebellion? Also, the whole narrative of ‘the fall’ is heavily laden with symbolism. Aren’t we reverting to neo-fundamentalist literalism if we say that everything described has a purely literal value?

Pursuing the rabbit holes: there is some evidence that Eve understood Gen 3:15 as messianic; Gen 4:1 when read in Hebrew suggests that Eve believed she had brought forth a ‘God man’, and that the messiah had come. (depending on the significance of the word ‘ek’ - as introducing a direct object: “I have brougtht forth a man - the Lord!” Can anyone help me on this?)

However, Andrew is calling us to order in his last paragraph - and I wouldn’t want to derail things.

Down, down, down

Maybe the instinct is well founded. After all, did God really need to tell us that snakes are dangerous (and not even all of them!) in a prophecy/curse after the momentous event of makind’s primal rebellion? Also, the whole narrative of ‘the fall’ is heavily laden with symbolism.

I would have more confidence in these allegorizing instincts if i) the passage itself carried some pointer to a more than literal significance; ii) there was clear evidence that the OT found prophetic significance in this verse; iii) the NT explicitly attributed messianic significance to it; or iv) these sort of interpretations hadn’t originally emerged at at time when the church was allegorizing anything it could lay its hands on.

Aren’t we reverting to neo-fundamentalist literalism if we say that everything described has a purely literal value?

To my way of thinking it’s not about literalism - it’s about allowing the text to say what it wants to say, not what we think it ought to say. Incidentally, I wouldn’t entirely rule out a symbolic meaning, but how do you make sense of the parallel between the offspring of the snake and the offspring of the woman? I would have thought that the most you can reasonably say is that the passage envisages an ongoing conflict between Satan as a tempting force and humanity.

The translation of Gen.4:1 is certainly difficult. But surely the reference is still to Cain, not to some future God-man? Apparently Luther thought that Cain was the son of God promised in 3:15. But 3:15 doesn’t promise a ‘son of God’, merely ‘offspring’. Gordon Wenham hesitates between ‘I have gained a man with the Lord’s help’ and ‘I have created a man as the Lord (has done)’ (Genesis 1-15, 102). Since this is the first child born to Adam and Eve, it would certainly make some sense for her to compare herself to God as a creator.

This one will run and run

Andrew - I think I’ve addressed point i) already - and it is letting the text say what it wants to say, not just in 3:15 but the whole of Genesis 3. In point ii) why would there need to be ‘clear evidence’ elsewhere in the OT? (about 3:15 in particular having a prophetic significance - isn’t there enough in the passage itself?); iii) & iv) seem at least to me not to have huge bearing, though no doubt considerations.

As regards the ‘messianic’ interpretation of Gen 4:1 - it does require some importation of ideas not explicit in the 3:15 prophecy (ie that the messiah is the God-man). And it is addressed to Cain - Eve was mistaken in thinking he was the coming messiah. (I will bring some more detail to this interpretation of the Hebrew later as I don’t have the commentator with this particular interpretation with me).

But these are rabbit holes - and meanwhile … . I think I hear the rustling wings of vultures already circling for their prey.

Messianic prophecy in Genesis 3?

For what it’s worth, the particular take on Gen 4:1 (in ‘this one will run and run’) which suggested that Eve thought Cain was a messiah, is this:

‘… the word Jehovah is immediately preceded by the Hebrew particle ‘eth’. Now ‘eth’ may be understood in two ways: it may mean ‘with’, or it may be the sign of the accusative case - ie the noun to which it is prefixed is the definite object of the verb… Some commentators give ‘eth’ its meaning ‘with’, and then supply the words ‘the help of’ between ‘eth’ and ‘the Lord’. But usage is definitely against the insertion of words between ‘eth’ and the noun to which it is joined by maqqeph. The connection is too close, and I suggest that ‘eth’ is used here in the same sense that it is used in the preceding clause. There we read in the A.V., “… and she conceived, and bare Cain.” In the Hebrew, the word for ‘Cain’ is immediately preceded by ‘eth’, thereby indicating that ‘Cain’ is the definite (sic) object of the verb… In the next clause, Eve says, “I have gotten a man - Jehovah.” There, as stated above, the proper name is immediately preceded by ‘eth’, the distinctive force of which might be expressed by our word ‘even’:- “I have gotten a man, even Jehovah.” ‘

The author of this remark - a man like Melchizedek, without father or mother or genealogy - was one Ben Adam, whose words are quoted from a reprint of a book (the date of the original being unknown) in 1937.

The source of the remark is immaterial: the question is whether the linguistic analysis is correct. Evidently Luther thought so. Can anyone comment on this?

I did say that this was a rabbit hole. There isn’t much evidence anywhere else that early scriptural texts (or any!) thought of a coming messiah, one who would be human and divine.

But as regards Gen 3:15 - granted the principle of allowing the texts to speak for themselves, I find it difficult to come away from the chapter thinking only of talking snakes, and the pronouncing of judgements in which the snakes alone of God’s creation are set at enmity with man, and that God thought that would be a useful piece of information to convey to Eve (and her offspring) as she departed from Eden. (Unless the region was particularly infested with venomous snakes).

On the other hand, maybe I’ve got more work to do in jettisoning my preconceptions about these parts of scripture, and in listening to the texts without my fully-formed theological preconceptions.

So what were we talking about anyway … Oh yes, emerging church. Hmmmm.

P.S. Apologies for confusing the Gk ‘ek’ with the Hebrew ‘eth’ in the previous post; but there again, more potential rabbit holes open up

P.P.S. Can anyone tell me how to get quoted material to appear in the indented margin format with shaded background?

I do have more pertinent comments to the website to contribute than these - I’m just getting rid of some of the mental baggage first.

Early Messanic Texts

Peter:

I appreciate your thoughtful remarks.

I wonder if we might look to Job as a possible early text for a hint of the God/Man/Redeemer?

I believe some “conservative” scholars place the writing during the period of the great wisdom books in Solomon’s time. One commentator has noted similarities between Psalms 88 and 89 and called attention to Job’s longevity and the practice of a God pleasing religion, supernatural revelation and apparently outside of the Abrahamic covenant. As I understand it, some scholars wish to place the book as late as 2nd century BC but have been somewhat frustrated by old Hebrew script fragments among the Dead Sea Scrolls. Because the book lacks much of the post Exile doctrinal eschatology, an early pre-Exile period seems possible or maybe even likely. Having written all that, perhaps the question is not when was it written, but how long was it transmitted orally before the Holy Spirit moved someone write it all down.

The text which I believe is applicable is found in the 9th chapter. I recommend taking the verse in context of the whole chapter, but some verses set the stage very nicely.

“If I speak of strength, lo, he is strong: and if of judgment, who shall set me a time to plead? If I justify myself, mine own mouth shall condemn me: If I say, I am perfect, it shall also prove me perverse. Though I were perfect, yet would I not know my own soul: I would despise my life…”. If I wash myself with snow water and make my hands ever so clean; yet shalt thou plunge me in the ditch and my own clothes shall abhor me.” Job 9:20-21,30-31

“For he is not a man, as I am that I should answer him, and we should come together in judgment. Neither is there any daysman betwixt us, that might lay his hand on us both. Let him take his rod away from me, and let not his fear terrify me: then would I speak, and not fear him, but it is not so with me.” Job 9:32-35

If I might supplement this with a new testament passage: “There is one God, and one mediator between God and men, the man Christ Jesus; Who gave himself a ransom for all, to be testified in due time.” I Timothy 2:5-6 , to which I could add Hebrews 9:15.

I realize things which seem plain to me are often unclear and endlessly debatable to others. What is clear to me, at least, is that Job saw a real chasm between himself and his understanding of his rightousness and the terrible (I use the word in the old sense)holiness of God and longed (prophetically?) for a day where someone could stand in the gap representing equally and equitably each party in the dispute.

I hope this gives you some ideas to consider. Alario

Snaking our way through the Old Testament

I’m not sure the non-allegorical interpretation of the serpent is so ridiculous. It is curious that the Old Testament shows no direct interest in this passage. The serpent is commonly a simple threat to physical safety (Ps.91:13; Prov.23:32; Eccl.10:8; Is.65:25; Amos 5:19). Related to this, it is sometimes regarded as an agent of divine judgment: for example, the serpents that plagued the people of Israel in the wilderness (Num.21:6-7; and cf. Gen.49:17; Is.14:29; Amos 9:3). This is a natural enough development of Gen.3:15. The serpent is feared because it is one of the means of harm by which the people are judged. The serpent also, like Leviathan, can represent powers of chaos and evil in the world that oppose the Lord (Is.27:1), but this is an exceptional instance and does not show any obvious dependence on Gen.3.

I want to say again (apologies if this seems obsessive) that we have a huge tendency to over-read Scripture, and I would argue that this is not at all helpful for an emerging theology that wants to understand the Bible afresh and make better sense of it for the world (see ‘Strange but true: the irrelevance of Scripture for the church today’). I appreciate the fact that it is very postmodern to hear intertextual echoes, but as Miss Quested discovered in the Malabar caves (A Passage to India), echoes can seriously affect your judgment. In his ‘Narrative Multiverse & polyacoustic hearing’ comment Andy says ‘one can hardly read Gen 3:15 without hearing an echo of other portions of the Bible’, but how can you hear in Gen.3:15, which is an early text, echoes of later texts? Can you really have the echo preceding the noise that made it? Popular, devotional Bible reading can do it, of course; so can a Postmodern reading - the two are often not far apart as Tom Wright has pointed out. But I don’t think it’s a good idea to label Gen.3:15 prophetic (ie. pre-echoing?) simply on the grounds that later Christian symbology saw an analogy with Christ’s victory over satan. It seems highly unlikely that anyone would have read Gen.4:1 as Eve’s mistaken messianic (not just messianic because she speaks of YHWH) interpretation of 3:15.

yeah but no but

Isn’t this doing what you say we shouldn’t be doing? Ie using later parts of the OT to provide a commentary on earlier parts (Gen 3:15) - in this case, to critique an ‘over-reading’ of the passage. I still think (to be awkward) that reading Gen 3:15 in the context of the preceding verses does encourage us toward a more symbolic view of ‘snakes’. I suppose the key phrase you use is ‘over-reading’. Hearing echoes elsewhere in scripture must be part of a valid way of understanding scripture - just as asking the question such as why there is so little mention of snakes as metaphors satan elsewhere in the OT is also valid - and puzzling. I’ve also found the other contributions on this particular issue very helpful.

P.S.Thanks for the help with transferring quoted material

Re: The woman and the dragon

Andrew wrote:

The serpent is not identified with Satan - it is merely the craftiest of all the beasts.

Does the text really say that the serpent was "the craftiest of all the beasts…" or does the text actually state the the "serpent was more crafty than any beast of the field?

In other words, the serpent was not a beast of the field as he was more crafty than any beast of the field. 

I am amazed that the emergent church seems to question nearly every doctrine of the church except for the Christian myth that the serpent was a beast (snake) of the field that could talk.

According to Genesis and Paul there were only two creatures in the garden capable of talking and Paul wrote that:

…Adam was not deceived, but the woman being deceived, fell into transgression. (1 Timothy 2:14 NKJV; cf 2Cor 11:3)

I submit for your consideration that "the serpent" was actually Adam in rebellion against God.  In other words the serpent is a metaphor for the rebellion of Adam/mankind.

Twice in Revelation John (from Jesus) tells his readers that "the great dragon," is "that old serpent" which is also "called the devil and satan (adversary) [Rev 12:9; 20:2].

The people who John the Baptist and Jesus the Messiah metaphorically called "a generation of serpents/vipers" (Matt 3:7, 12:34, 23:37; Lu 3:7) who were of their "father the devil" were not descendents of "serpents" or the "devil" - they were in fact descendants of Adam; they were a rebellious people.

I also submit for your consideration that John 8:44 is a description of the rebellion of Adam, i.e. in Genesis metaphorically described as "the serpent":

"You are of your father the devil (Adam), and the desires of your father you want to do. He was a murderer (his rebellion killed all men) from the beginning, and did not abide in the truth, because there was no truth in him. When he speaks a lie, he speaks from his own rebellion, for he is a liar and the father of it. (John 8:44)

There were no talking serpents in the garden except for Adam. Adam was the only one in the garden that was more crafty than any beast.  Adam deceived Eve and caused her to fall that is why Paul wrote:

For as in Adam all die…death reigned from Adam to Moses, even over those who had not sinned according to the likeness of the transgression of Adam… (1Cor 15:22; Romans 5:14 NKJV)

According to Paul Eve was deceived, but we are never told that Adam was deceived - in fact, we are told that he was not deceived.   Adam deliberately rebelled against his creator and deceived Eve by telling her:

Now the serpent (metaphor for Adam in rebellion) was more cunning than any beast of the field which the LORD God had made. And he said to the woman, "Has God indeed said, ‘You shall not eat of every tree of the garden’ ?" (Genesis 3:1 NKJV)

Then the serpent said to the woman, "You will not surely die. "For God knows that in the day you eat of it your eyes will be opened, and you will be like God, knowing good and evil." (Genesis 3:4-5 NKJV)

Adam wanted to eat of the tree of the knowledge of good and evil, but he was a coward - thus he deceived Eve and thus murdered (sacrificed) her and when it did not look like she had died he ate of the fruit and they both died.  Thus Adam was a liar and a murderer from the beginning.

The serpent was really Adam?

Lloyd, I rather imagine that many women will applaud your ingenuity; but this reading is, to put it mildly, problematic.

The Hebrew of Gen.3:1 reads something like: ‘the serpent was shrewd out of / more than every living thing of the open-field’. The LXX reads: ‘the serpent was most intelligent of all wild beasts on the earth’. The obvious sense of both these constructions is that the serpent is included in the group of creatures that live in open country (cf. 3:14). A more complex construction would be needed, I think, if the point was that the ‘serpent’ was not part of the group.

All sorts of other objections arise: Eve clearly distinguished between Adam and the serpent; the serpent is cursed and made to go on its stomach and eat dust (unlike Adam who will have to eat the plants of the field); the serpent’s offspring with be in conflict with the woman’s offspring. There is no basis for your claim that ‘According to Genesis and Paul there were only two creatures in the garden capable of talking’. Adam is dead (Paul is quite clear about that!) and cannot be the serpent which is the adversary of the early church. Adam was ‘not deceived’ simply because the serpent spoke to Eve, not to him - Paul constructs it in this way because he is developing a correspondence with the activity of false teachers who prey on gullible women.

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Andrew wrote:
 …this reading (the serpent is Adam) is, to put it mildly, problematic.

And of course there is nothing "problematic" about a talking serpent who appears out of nowhere and strikes up a conversation with Eve, knows more about God than Eve, and deceives her into eating the fruit, etc. etc.  Where did all the talking serpents go?  When the serpent was cursed nothing was said about taking his voice (ability to talk) away from him - to say nothing about the intelligence that was necessary in order for him to talk.  And how about the problem of a literal serpent bearing seed that would have enmity against the woman’s seed?   Hmmm, serpents laying around in the dust, planning how to make war against the woman’s seed?   It is apparent that Christian myths die slowly even in the emergent church.   Andrew translates:
 "The Hebrew of Gen.3:1 reads something like: ‘the serpent was shrewd out of / more than every living thing of the open-field’. "

This translation/description fits Adam even better than some others.  According to the Genesis account Adam was in fact living in "the open field" and certainly Adam was more shrewd than every other living thing.  Adam was certainly part of the group living in the field.  Thus no "more complex construction would be needed."   Andrew also wrote:
All sorts of other objections arise:

Let’s take a look at each of the objections that Andrew says would arise.  His first objection was:
Eve clearly distinguished between Adam and the serpent;

My wife certainly does not have any problem distinguishing my rebellious behavior from my compliant behavior, therefore, I see no problem with Eve being able to "distinguish between a compliant Adam and his rebellious (serpent) behavior.   Andrews second objection:
 …the serpent is cursed and made to go on its stomach and eat dust (unlike Adam who will have to eat the plants of the field);

This is simply a curse on Adam’s rebellion.  Adam was certainly the one that was cursed above the cattle and above every beast of the field.  Going on his belly (not stomach) and eating dust is a metaphor for humiliation.  Because of his rebellion Adam would experience life long humiliation and as no serpent actually eats dust how could it be a literal serpent?  But no animal eats more dust than man trying to wrest his livelihood from a cursed, dry and unyielding earth.   Andrews third objection:
 the serpent’s offspring with be in conflict with the woman’s offspring.

I find it very interesting that Genesis 4:1 makes it very clear that Cain was Adam’s son:
Now Adam knew Eve his wife, and she conceived and bore Cain…" (Genesis 4:1 NKJV)

but makes no such declaration about the birth of Abel.  This could be an indication of the curse that stipulates the conflict between the serpent’s (Adam in rebellion) seed and the seed of the woman.  Cain, the serpent’s (Adam in rebellion) son (seed) rose up and killed Abel (i.e. the woman’s seed?).   Genesis continues:
…and she (Eve) bore another son and called his name Seth - for God has given me another seed instead of Abel whom Cain killed…and to Seth…there was born a son…then men began to call upon the name of the LORD.

Notice that Eve apparently thought that God had given her "another seed" (seed of the woman) to replace the first seed of the woman (Abel) whom Cain murdered.  This "seed" called upon the name of the LORD and subsequently were know as sons of God as opposed to sons of men (the serpent’s seed).   Thus Genesis 4 sets forth the first, but not the last, conflict between the seed of the serpent (Adam in rebellion) and the seed of the woman which is developed in its entirety in the NT.   Andrews fourth objection:
Adam is dead (Paul is quite clear about that!) and cannot be the serpent which is the adversary of the early church

but, of course, the "serpent" was still alive in the first century???   Certainly Adam was dead, but the rebellion which he spawned was alive and well in the first century and was being played out as a great, almost unimaginable, hostility and hatred of unregenerate men (the seed of the serpent) was aimed at the Christ and His followers.  They bruised Him and killed His followers, but He crushed the head of the serpent and they overcame him (that old serpent) by the blood of the Lamb.   Look at how Paul describes one of these unregenerates (seed of the serpent) - Elymas the sorcerer:
 "O full of all deceit and all fraud, you son (seed) of the devil (that old serpent, Rev 12:9, 20:2), you enemy of all righteousness, will you not cease perverting the straight ways of the Lord (the seed of the woman)? (Acts 13:10 NKJV)

Ostensibly this is a straight shot back to the serpent in the garden (Adam in rebellion).  The conflict between the seed of the serpent and the woman’s seed was in full force in this passage.   While it is true that objections will arise - it is also true that they can be adequately dealt with.  It is time to lay the myth of the literal serpent in the garden to rest.

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Hi Lloyd

I sounds like you argument is based on the presupposition that there is no such thing as the devil or Satan. To make a case about the serpent being Adam, you would first have to show that Satan is not real and that any references to him a simply a metaphor for evil men. Pretty difficult given the NT’s bias toward Pharisaic rather than Sadducee theology.

It think both OT and New interpret the snake in Eden as a fallen angel. In Ezekiel 28 you have the guardian cherub ‘in Eden, the garden of God’ covered in multicoloured jewels (think snake skin) before his fall. In Revelation 12, the dragon, the ancient serpent, leads an angelic rebellion in heaven and is thrown down to the earth. While the bible does ‘demythologise’ the serpent, it doesn’t demythologise angels.

Deacon

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

I was wondering how long it would be before someone brought the myth of a fallen angel into this discussion.  Where in Genesis 1-4 (or for that matter anywhere in Genesis) do you find a descrption of the mythological fallen angel.  It simply is not there, but must be read into the text from the imagination of men.

Sorry Deacon, the burden of proof is on you.  Before I need to "show that Satan is not real" you must show that he is/was real.  I have never seen that proven.  Certainly not by Ezekiel 28.

It (sic) think both OT and New interpret the snake in Eden as a fallen angel. In Ezekiel 28 you have the guardian cherub ‘in Eden, the garden of God’ covered in multicoloured jewels (think snake skin) before his fall. In Revelation 12, the dragon, the ancient serpent, leads an angelic rebellion in heaven and is thrown down to the earth.

I find nothing in the OT or the NT that interprets the snake in Eden as a fallen angel and I could not help but notice that you only "think" and that you had to add (think snake skin).  That shows that you have a good imagination, but no evidence.

As far as Ezekiel 28, God clearly states that this passage was directed to men not a fallen angel.

The word of the LORD came to me again, saying, "Son of man, say to the prince of Tyrus, ‘Thus says the Lord GOD: "Because your heart [is] lifted up, And you say, ‘I [am] a god, I sit [in] the seat of gods, In the midst of the seas,’ Yet you [are] a man, and not a god, Though you set your heart as the heart of a god (Ezekiel 28:1-2)

Son of man, take up a lamentation upon the king of Tyrus, and say unto him, Thus saith the Lord GOD; Thou sealest up the sum, full of wisdom, and perfect in beauty. (Ezekiel 28:12)

As far as I can see this passage states nothing about a fallen angel.  This passage is a straight shot back to the loins of Adam in the garden which is how the King of Tyrus was in Eden very similar to Paul’s charge against Elymas in Matt 13:10 which I cited above.

Now as for Rev 12 - in that passage the "dragon" to which you refer is very clearly identified as that "old serpent called the devil and satan" then in verse 10 this entity is clearly identified as "the accuser of our brethren" which the NT clearly identifies 33 + times as the Jews, the first century enemies of Jesus Christ and His followers.

In Rev 12:7 the "war in heaven" is a covenantal metaphor for the first century covenantal conflict over the true identity of the "children of God" between the followers of Jesus Christ and the Apostate Jews/Judaizers.  The apostates were cast out of the covenant relationship as the followers of Jesus Christ "overcame them by the blood of the Lamb and by the word of their testimony because they loved not their lives unto the death."

There is no fallen angel in that passage.  It has been read into the passage out of ignorance and superstition.

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

I was wondering how long it would be before someone brought the myth of a fallen angel into this discussion.  Where in Genesis 1-4 (or for that matter anywhere in Genesis) do you find a descrption of the mythological fallen angel.  It simply is not there, but must be read into the text from the imagination of men.

I agree it must be read into the text, but I don’t agree it is ‘from the imagination of men’, not if we see the scriptures as in any way inspired. The story in Genesis, says nothing about a fallen angel, or for that matter the serpent being Adam’s rebellious nature. In the story the serpent is simply a snake, wisest of all the animals, but still a snake. The story then gives us an explanation of why the snake has no legs and why he flicks his tongue around in the dust. The Genesis account sticks to the simple storyline that the tempter is a snake.

However the rest of the bible does not interpret the serpent as a literal reptile. what we do have is an apocalyptic ‘Leviathan’ figure in the OT and more specific references to the garden of Eden in Ezekiel and Revelation.

As far as I can see this passage states nothing about a fallen angel.  This passage is a straight shot back to the loins of Adam in the garden which is how the King of Tyrus was in Eden very similar to Paul’s charge against Elymas in Matt 13:10 which I cited above.

Sorry I don’t see any reference to ‘the loins of Adam’ in Ezekiel. Instead the prophet switched from the human ‘prince of Tyre’ to the real ruler of the city, and angel who was in Eden, where he was encrusted in jewels, which would have made him look pretty reptilian.

Revelation clearly represents the serpent in Eden as the devil and Satan. On that much we can agree. He is called the accuser of the brethren (which is pretty much what Satan and devil mean). But you say there was no fallen angel angel in the passage when it describes the devil and his angels being thrown out of heaven is pushing it a bit.  

It has been read into the passage out of ignorance and superstition.

I am afraid you are reading modern materialism into the bible rather than looking at what the writers actually meant. Perhaps if the bible had been written by Sadducees your interpretations might ring true. Who was the angel who appeared to Mary? Was it the Jewish leaders who tempted Jesus in the desert with visions of world empires? How did Satan enter Judas when he ate the morsel from Jesus? Was Paul talking about human opposition in Eph 6:12 For we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the cosmic powers over this present darkness, against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly places. Did Peter not believe in the devil when he warned his readers 1Pet 5:8 Be sober-minded; be watchful. Your adversary the devil prowls around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour. Who did Jude think fought over the body of Moses Jude 9  But when the archangel Michael, contending with the devil, was disputing about the body of Moses.

Of course there are times when people who served Satan were called devils or children of the devil, but that metaphor worked because they did believe in a real Satan. I can understand you desire to demythologise Satan and dismiss him as superstition, but the writers of the bible believed he was real.

Deacon

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Deacon, please permit me to respectfully disagree with your unsubstantiated statement that "the writers of the bible believed he (satan) was real."  It is good that you admit that fallen angel must "be read into the text."   I respectfully submit for your apparently non-emergent consideration that "the writers of the Bible" believed no such nonsense.  Perhaps the post Parousia interpreters and translators of the Bible believed this, but I find no evidence in the Bible to substantiate your undocumented claim that "the writers of the bible believed he was real."  Quite the contrary.   Now back to your story account: 
The story then gives us an explanation of why the snake has no legs and why he flicks his tongue around in the dust.

Where does the story inform us that the "snake" had legs and did not " flick his tongue in the dust" before the judgment of God on the serpent in Genesis 3:14?  That, of course, is incorrectly read into the statement in 3:14.   As a boy and as a Biologist, I have captured and studied many snakes and I can assure you, as will any herpetologist, that snakes do not normally "flick their tongues in the dust."   You correctly state:
However the rest of the bible does not interpret the serpent as a literal reptile. what we do have is an apocalyptic ‘Leviathan’ figure in the OT and more specific references to the garden of Eden in Ezekiel and Revelation.

and in every instance this "apocalyptic ‘Leviathan’ figure" is demonstrably the product of man’s rebellion against God not that of some mythical fallen angel.  That fallen angel motif only exists because it has been read into the Bible by second century and subsequent interpreters of the Bible.   You wrote:
Instead the prophet switched from the human ‘prince of Tyre’ to the real ruler of the city, and angel who was in Eden, where he was encrusted in jewels, which would have made him look pretty reptilian.

Again, you had to read that "switch" from a human king to fallen angel into the passage.  Every "prince" has a father and that father is the king or the "prince" could not be a "prince."  Outside of your ‘read into the passage paradigm of a fallen angel’ there is no bases in that text for a switch from a human king who is the father of the "prince" in 28:1-10 to a fallen angel which the Bible elsewhere never informs us of.   You also read into the text "encrusted in jewels, which would have made him look pretty reptilian."  Without your fallen angel paradigm, which is read into the text, that king of Tyrus sounds like any other king of the time who displayed his wealth in jewels for all to see.  The rebellion against God displayed by the king of Tyrus began with Adam in Eden and forms the basis for Ezekiel’s charge against the king of Tyrus.     According to Ezekiel his charges against the prince and the king of Tyrus occurred in ca. the eleventh year of his captivity (Ez 26:1).  Ca. 16 years (Ez 29:17-18) after Ezekiel’s prophecy in Ez 28 against the King of Tyrus —Tyrus, the place, the prince and the king - not a fallen angel - was destroyed and the prophecy was fulfilled.   You wrote:
But you say there was no fallen angel angel in the passage when it describes the devil and his angels being thrown out of heaven is pushing it a bit.  

Surly you know that the word "heaven" in the Bible does not always mean the abode of God as you seem to think.  Many times "heaven" refers to an earthly seat of authority.  The prototype being the "heaven" of Genesis 37:9-10 where the "sun," "moon" and "stars" compose the "heaven" of Jacob’s family.  The first century Jews understood their covenant temple to be "Heaven."  The "war in heaven" in Rev 12 was a covenantal war between the apostates of the old covenant and the faithful of the new covenant.  In that context "not having a place in heaven" and "being thrown out of heaven" is covenantal language for loosing their place in covenant relationship with God and being cast out of the covenant.   Surely you also know that the Greek "aggelov" (aggelos ang’-el-os) literally means messenger and can refer to an earthly messenger (a person) as well as a heavenly messenger.  The context determines which is intended.  Rev 12:9-11 is a metaphor for that first century covenantal battle between the apostates of the old covenant and the faithful of the new covenant.  No heavenly messengers were involved, nor was there any fallen angel involved.   You ask several question which are dealt with below:
Who was the angel who appeared to Mary?  

 It was a messenger from the throne of God.
Was it the Jewish leaders who tempted Jesus in the desert with visions of world empires?

No it was not "the Jewish leaders."  It was the ‘flesh" in rebellion which Jesus overcame by the proper use of the word of God.
How did Satan enter Judas when he ate the morsel from Jesus?

His "flesh" rebelled and prompted him to betray Jesus.   To put it another way, It was his adversarial nature that rose up and prompted him to betray Jesus.
Was Paul talking about human opposition in Eph 6:12 For we do not wrestle against flesh and blood, but against the rulers, against the authorities, against the cosmic powers over this present darkness, against the spiritual forces of evil in the heavenly places.

Yes it was.  These are the temple cult authorities that arose in opposition to Jesus and His followers as demonstrated all through Acts.
Did Peter not believe in the devil when he warned his readers 1Pet 5:8 Be sober-minded; be watchful. Your adversary the devil prowls around like a roaring lion, seeking someone to devour.

Peters "devil" was not a fallen angel called "Satan."  His "devil" was the apostate Jews, including for a time "Saul" who later converted to Christ and stop being a "devil" that was "prowling about seeking someone to devour."  Read Paul’s own account of his life as a "devil" persecutor and killer of the "Sect of the way."  Peter vividly described this human "brute beast" - "devil" in 2Peter 2:1-3, & 10-22.
 Who did Jude think fought over the body of Moses Jude 9  But when the archangel Michael, contending with the devil, was disputing about the body of Moses.

It appears that Jude is referring to Rev 12:7 and thus was referring to the same covenantal battle that is described in that passage.

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Where does the story inform us that the "snake" had legs and did not " flick his tongue in the dust" before the judgment of God on the serpent in Genesis 3:14?  That, of course, is incorrectly read into the statement in 3:14.   As a boy and as a Biologist, I have captured and studied many snakes and I can assure you, as will any herpetologist, that snakes do not normally "flick their tongues in the dust."  

That depends on how dusty the ground is and how windy the day. In the Middle East you will get a lot of dust nose level with a serpent. The Genesis account gives a very simple etiological myth explaining why snakes crawl on the ground and seemingly ‘eat dust’. But that is not how the rest of the bible interprets the serpent.

Deacon: Who was the angel who appeared to Mary?  

Lloyd: It was a messenger from the throne of God.

So you actually do believe in angels, spiritual beings from a heavenly realm? Or is this more metaphor?

Deacon

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Deacon,

Yes, I actually believe that there are "heavenly" beings - I just do not find any evidence in the Bible that one of them "fell" and took a whole bunch of others with it.

Lloyd

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Lloyd,

Lest I my ‘non-emergence’ be deplored, let me assure you that I value the questioning of our assumptions.  That includes, of course, our traditional understanding of the ‘Satan’ we’ve inherited from our Church traditions.  However, I think your rejection of a ‘spiritual’ rebellion is problematic (and I think I’m not the only one to think this).  Paul’s ‘principalities and powers’ come to mind, certainly (and you’ve already given your view on these), but I just wanted to reference a couple passages which I find particularly problematic for your thesis that Scripture doesn’t ground these traditional views.

First of all, the first chapter of Job most certainly assumes that ‘Satan’ is a primary adversary of God, and it most certainly assumes that this adversary is not human.  Since I take your fundamental claim to be that there was never any rebellion against God in ‘the heavenlies’, I think this passage should be problematic for you.  While I readily admit that the introductory scene to this marvelous book should not be seen as historical by any means, it is hard to deny that it nevertheless reflects the worldview of its author.  I would argue that the traditional ‘warfare’ worldview is consequently quite biblical.

Second, Daniel 10:13 portrays, at the very least, intense conflict in the heavenly realm.  I find that the traditional view of Satan and his rebellious following fits quite well with this passage.  How might you deal with it?

Sometimes, though it is true that the post-apostolic Church uses non-biblical terminology or imagery, and that more sophisticated theological ideas are birthed, it is not necessarily wise to throw them out for being ‘non-biblical’ (I am thinking here primarily of the Trinity—though your own revisionist attempts to get a spiritual Satan out of Scripture strike me as being in the same vein).  Just because a tradition has developed around an idea that is less than central in Scripture doesn’t mean it is a bad tradition, or that it is Scripturally unfounded…

Am I making sense?

Cheers,

-Daniel-

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Hi Daniel,

Where did I ever say that I rejected a "spiritual" rebellion.  It seems to me that was exactly what Adam’s rebellion was.  Why should I look else where for one.  Image with me for a moment that all we have is the Genesis account of creation - where in that account did God tell Adam to watch out for that fallen angel that was hiding in a serpent waiting to get him?  Wasn’t God violating His own character by not warning Adam about that dangerous fallen angel that was prowling around in the garden?   Don’t you think it is rather strange that we have to get all the way to Ezekiel to find a supposed description of this fallen angel?

You wrote:

First of all, the first chapter of Job most certainly assumes that ‘Satan’ is a primary adversary of God, and it most certainly assumes that this adversary is not human. 

I can agree with your first assumption that "adversary" (satan) was a primary adversary of God, but I see nothing in the text that states or implies that he was not human.   Therefore, I see no reason why this passage should be problematic for my view.

 

If by "the traditional ‘warfare’ worldview" you are referring to the view of a fallen angel fighting against God I fail to see anything biblical about it.  However, if you are referring to the warfare between rebellious men and God I would see that as very biblical.  See how many times God refers to Israel as a rebellious people.  The non Israelites were often even more rebellious.

Second, Daniel 10:13 portrays, at the very least, intense conflict in the heavenly realm.  I find that the traditional view of Satan and his rebellious following fits quite well with this passage.  How might you deal with it?

Was the messenger to Daniel in the "heavenly realm" while it was talking to Daniel?  (I think not)If not, I see no reason to assume that it was in the "heavenly realm" when it was dealing with the "prince of the kingdom of Persia either."  I see nothing in the text that would lead me to think that "the prince of the kingdom of Persia was anything but a human prince of the kingdom of Persia.

Contrary to your apparent understanding, I am not trying "to get a spiritual Satan out of Scripture."  I am simply trying to get a non-existent fallen angel out of Christian tradition.  I think that fallen, rebellious man is a very "spiritual" adversary of God.

Early in your post you mentioned Paul’s "principalities and powers" so in closing let’s take a closer look at that passage and some related passages:

Ephesians 6:12 For we wrestle not against flesh and blood, but against principalities, against powers, against the rulers of the darkness of this world, against spiritual wickedness in high places.

Lloyd

I see nothing in this verse that demands or even implies that we should see "principalities" or "powers" as a fallen angel.  The context is darkness and spiritual wickedness that takes place in that darkness.  Matthew defines this darkness as:

The people who sat in darkness have seen a great light, And upon those who sat in the region and shadow of death Light has dawned." (Matthew 4:16 NKJV)

The darkness and wickedness was in the cosmos of the covenant people and it was directly associated with the "principalities" and "powers" of that cosmos not about an imaginary fallen angel.  Titus defines "principalities" for us:

Titus 3:1 Put them in mind to be subject to principalities and powers, to obey magistrates, to be ready to every good work,

as human in every respect, just like magistrates and other human authorities.  It was a human spiritual battle - the ideas of the  followers of Christ against the followers of the Mosaic cosmos leadership and Paul explained how to win the war:

casting down arguments and every high thing that exalts itself against the knowledge of God, bringing every thought into captivity to the obedience of Christ, (2 Corinthians 10:5 NKJV)

"every high thing" surely includes "principalities and powers."

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Hi Lloyd

It sounds like you have a problem here, you believe in angels, but every time we read about an angel in the bible where it refers to fallen angels you have to interpret the passage metaphorically. So in Revelation we have Michael, apparently not just an angel but an archangel (Jude 9), fighting in heaven with his angels against Satan and his angels. Although this clearly speak of angels (which you recognise), because it mentions fallen angels you have to interpret it as a covenant battle. But apparently when Satan is cast out of heaven to the ground he goes off to fight against the believers. So who was he fighting against in heaven and where did the battle take place?

In Daniel 10 the angel seems as genuine as the one who spoke to Mary. Yet because the angel speaks of the ‘Prince of Persia’ who was able to resist and angel from the throne of God, you have to interpret the the angel metaphorically.

Ephesians 6 tells us clearly we are not fighting against flesh and blood enemies but spiritual forces of wickedness ‘in the heavenly places’ (the translation ‘high places’ does not do the Greek justice.) Yes the same word principality (arche or ruler) is used for human rulers, but the ones in Ephesians are ‘not flesh and blood’ and are ‘in the heavenly places’.

Cheers, Deacon

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Howdy Deacon,   I do not think that I have a problem.  Where did I say that I believe in "angels"?  The problem is that you have no passage that deals with a "fallen angel."  That is an interpretation which you and others have read in to certain passages.  Where did I deal with any passage that uses the words "fallen angel" metaphorically?   You wrote:
So in Revelation we have Michael, apparently not just an angel but an archangel (Jude 9), fighting in heaven with his angels against Satan and his angels. Although this clearly speak of angels (which you recognise), because it mentions fallen angels you have to interpret it as a covenant battle.

No, I do not recognize that this passage speaks about angels as you understand them.  As you well know the Greek word translated "angel" actually and literal means messenger and is so translated in 2Cor 12:7:
And lest I should be exalted above measure by the abundance of the revelations, a thorn in the flesh was given to me, a messenger of Satan to buffet me, lest I be exalted above measure. (2 Corinthians 12:7 NKJV)

It is apparent that the translators knew that satan did not have any angels so they translated the Greek word "aggelov" (aggelos ang’-el-os) in this passage instead of transliterating it as they did in most other passage.  The translators knew full well that aggelos in and of itself does not mean a heavenly being, but they deliberately chose to transliterate the word in most cases instead of translating it to "messenger" as it should be in every English passage translated from the Greek aggelos.   In that context the passage above is really talking about "messengers" therefore Michael was not an "archangel" as unfortunately you and far to many others are led to believe by the improper translation of the Greek lexeme "aggelov."  Michael was an "arcaggelov" (archaggelos ar-khang’-el-os).   As you well know the Greek "archaggelos" is a composite word consisting of "aggelos" (defined above) and "arch."  The Greek lexeme is a primary verb which literally means "to be first" as in "to be first to rule" or "to begin."  In this context Michael was a first to rule or beginning messenger.  In the context of the Gospel Jesus is the only "first messenger" or "ruling messenger," therefore, your argument notwithstanding, the lexeme Michael is in fact a metaphor for Jesus Christ, the true messenger sent from God to earth.  Thus both John and Jude are actually using this metaphor to refer to Jesus Christ.  Because Michael is a metaphor we can be certain that the "dragon" in Revelation is a metaphor as well; and therefore, has nothing to do with your imagined "fallen angel."   With the metaphor for Jesus and the dragon as a metaphor it now becomes apparent that "heaven" in this passage is also a metaphor and does not refer to the abode of God.  I find it very interesting that the Bible never describes "satan" as an angel who fell from the presence or abode of God.   However, in both the OT and the NT the lexeme "heaven" is often used as a metaphor for the source or seat of human authority.  Therefore "heaven" depending on the context in which it is used may be actually referring to the holy place in the temple, the covenant relationship with God, or the capital city of a ruling empire.  in Revelation 12: the lexeme "heaven" is an obvious reference to the Mosaic Marriage Covenant.  As I have stated before the "war" was a covenantal war in which the Jews fought for their place in that covenantal relationship with God against the "firstmessenger" of the New Covenant and His followers.  Both the Bible and history records that the Jews lost that war and yet nearly 2000 years post the end of that war (70 AD) many people, to their great shame, still do not understand neither the Bible nor the history of those first century events.   You wrote:
But apparently when Satan is cast out of heaven to the ground he goes off to fight against the believers.

I find it interesting that you use the lexeme "ground" to buttress your argument.  As you know, the Greek lexeme "gh" (ge ghay) is used in this passage and is generally translated "earth."  However, I think that land would be a better choice.  The "dragon" was cast out of the covenant at the death of the "firstmessenger."  However the "war" did not end there because the "dragon" was still in the land and now desperately fought against "the believers" (i.e. the messengers of the Gospel of the new covenant) as you state above.   You wrote:

In Daniel 10 the angel seems as genuine as the one who spoke to Mary. Yet because the angel speaks of the ‘Prince of Persia’ who was able to resist and angel from the throne of God, you have to interpret the the (sic) angel metaphorically.

Yes, I agree that the messenger to Daniel was as genuine as the one who spoke to Mary.  However, contrary to your claim, I did not interpret the messenger in Daniel 10 "metaphorically."  I merely implied that the action concerning the "prince of Persia" did not take place in the "heavenly realm" and neither did the messenger’s actions concerning Mary.  Both events took place on earth in real time and space.

You wrote:

Ephesians 6 tells us clearly we are not fighting against flesh and blood enemies but spiritual forces of wickedness ‘in the heavenly places’

Yes, Ephesians 6 does tell us that the first century battle described in Rev 12 was not against "flesh and blood" as far as the disciples were concerned.  However, that was not necessarily true as far as their adversary (satan/devil) was concerned.

As far as the disciples were concerned, their war was a war of truth against "principalities, and  powers" and their enemy was "the rulers of the darkness of that world" (the Mosaic Covenant world [cosmos]) who were entrenched in the temple cultus, i.e. "heavenly" places.

Deacon, perhaps it is time that you should "emerge" from your entrapment within the mythological "fallen angel" cultus into the real world of the first century situation.

Double cheers,

Lloyd

Re: The serpent was really Adam?

Lloyd.  I’m enjoying hearing your take on this issue.  I think you’re doing a fascinating rereading of most of the Scriptural material.  Whether or not you’re being true to the worldview of the biblical authors is a different matter (and I still think the first chapter of the book of Job puts a damper on your view—but anyway)…

My question to you is this: what on earth was Jesus casting out of the demon possessed people if it wasn’t demons?  Was ‘Legion’ a simple manifestation of one man’s schizophrenia?  Or something more?  I am aware that some people argue that demons in the New Testament should be understood as various mental illnesses… but I have never encountered someone who (like yourself) argues that the New Testament writers themselves did not believe in ‘demons’.  I think the latter is a much stronger claim (and also a much harder claim to establish).  And if there is no such thing as a demon, what do I make of the experience of demonization?

Good luck!

-Daniel- 

:-)

Re: The serpent was really Adam - demons

Hi Daniel,   You pose some great questions, the evidence of a thinking and questioning mind.  Thank you.  Now on to your questions:
My question to you is this: what on earth was Jesus casting out of the demon possessed people if it wasn’t demons? 

To answer your great question let’s take a look at the following:
Then one was brought to Him who was demon-possessed, blind and mute; and He healed him, so that the blind and mute man both spoke and saw. And all the multitudes were amazed and said, "Could this be the Son of David?" Now when the Pharisees heard they said, "This does not cast out demons except by Baalzebub, the ruler of the demons." (Matthew 12:22-24)

I think that this passage holds the key to the correct answer to your questions about demons.  Who was "baalzebub"?  For our answer, we must turn to the OT.  2Kings 1 informs us that Baalzebub was the idol god of Ekron.  From passages like Deut.32:16-17 and Psalm 106:34-39 (cf. Lev 17:7; 2Chron 11:15) we learn that the idol gods like Baalzebub and others are called "demons."  They were gods whom the Israelites "knew not" that had arisen in the minds of fallen men, gods of "their own invention" and the Israelites who knew God apostatized into worshipping these demons by offering their children as sacrifices unto them thus "polluting the land" and bringing God’s judgment and wrath upon them.   The judgment of God against Israel for their idol/demon harlotry brought the curses of God upon the Israelites (Deut 28:15ff; cf. Psa 106:39ff, et al.)  Among other things, the curse included being "smitten" with diseases, madness (insanity), blindness, deafness, lameness, terrors, bewilderment of the inner man (demon possession), etc.   As we look at the casting out of demons in the NT in the above context a very interesting pattern comes to light.  Let’s begin with Matthew 4:
Then His fame went throughout all Syria; and they brought to Him all sick people who were afflicted with various diseases and torments, and those who were demon-possessed, palsied (tremors, fits, etc.), and paralytics; and He healed them. (Matthew 4:24 NKJV)

In the context which we have provide above, it now becomes very apparent that these Israelites are exhibiting the presence of the curses of God upon them in fulfillment of Deut 28.  When Jesus cast out the demons and healed them He was individually removing the curses of God from them and restoring them to God.   When Jesus was casting out "demons" He was casting out (off) the curses (madness &/or bewilderment of the inner man) of God brought upon them by their idol (demon) worship.   Thus, we have now learned that "Legion" was the exhibition of a particularly severe case of God’s curses, madness & bewilderment of the inner man, upon the man.  It was much more than "a simple manifestation of one man’s schizophrenia," but it was not the work of an imaginary "fallen angel" either. 

Lloyd

Demons and benefits

Thank you for your response Lloyd.  Mind you, I’m not sure that Deuteronomy 28 actually ‘works’ to explain away the entire motif of demon-possession in the NT (and I find it particularly curious that the NT writers never make this connection), but that’s mostly because I’m not convinced God is a cursing God (not least, not like he’s portrayed in Deut 28:15).

More importantly, and this is where I really want to go with this line of questioning, what benefits are there, in your view, to rejecting the idea of angels (fallen or not)?  This is not intended to psychologize your view, but rather to help us understand why you think it would be beneficial for Christians who are a part of this emerging conversation to rid themselves of the old-fashioned view of ‘angels’ and ‘demons’.  Obviously a part of the answer is that you think the biblical data should point us away from such a view—but I mean beyond that.  Does it help us ‘connect’ more with our post-modern seekers?  Does it make Christianity less simplistic?  And more importantly, is it just catering to our very modern Western sensibilities?

Just lookin’ for your input.

Cheers,

-Daniel-

Re: Demons and benefits

  Hi Daniel,   Wow, talk about instant communications.  Now let’s turn to your post.
(and I find it particularly curious that the NT writers never make this connection),

But Daniel, they did make that connection.  Matthew 12:22ff is just the connection you deny that exists.  Here, the Pharisees clearly acknowledge their pagan belief that the pagan deities (idols) both punished and rewarded them.  A punishment was "demon possession" and "the casting out of the demons" was by one of these pagan deities, Baalzebub.  However, Jesus set them straight; the curse came from God and only the "power of God" could remove it and according to the OT the curses would be removed when the kingdom of God was established, therefore, Jesus statement, "I cast out demons by the Spirit (Power) of God, thus the kingdom of God is come unto you."
but that’s mostly because I’m not convinced God is a cursing God (not least, not like he’s portrayed in Deut 28:15).

WOW!  You really are "emergent."  I suppose that next you will be telling me that God did not have anything to do with the events of 66-70 AD either.  Where does it stop?  I accept that I am "rereading (much) of the Scriptural material."  However, my rereading of it is certainly not a denial of it as you apparently posit.   You wrote:
More importantly, and this is where I really want to go with this line of questioning, what benefits are there, in your view, to rejecting the idea of angels (fallen or not)?

Contrary to you assumption, I do not deny the biblical view of the messengers from the presence (heavenly) of God which you erroneously call "angels."  These are "messengers" that come from God, they were not "angels" by name or designation.  English speaking people have arrived at that false conclusion as a result of the failure of our translators to translate instead of transliterating.   There are different types of "messengers."  Adam was a "messenger" from God.  Jesus Christ was a "messenger" from God, Paul received a "Messenger" (an injury) from his persecutorial adversaries (satan), Mary received a "messenger" from the Lord as did many other including her husband, Daniel, etc.   As far as I can see within the biblical record, the only "messengers"  from God that fell were Adam and Eve.  Therefore, I deny the concept of the mythological "fallen angel."  That concept is an "invention" of the mind of fallen man, as far as I can see, it is not found in the Bible.  Which leads us to your next question:
why (do) you think it would be beneficial for Christians who are a part of this emerging conversation to rid themselves of the old-fashioned view of ‘angels’ and ‘demons’. 

The concept of "messengers" from God is a very important part of the biblical narrative.  I do not think that any Christian, whether part of "the emerging conversation" or not, should rid themselves of that concept.  However, the concept of an eternal, nearly all powerful, nearly omnipresent, supernatural entity that causes all of man’s problems is part of the great lie that began in the Garden of Eden.  Notice the progression - Adam said, "The woman whom thou gave to be with me gave me of the tree and I did eat."    Then in her turn Eve said, "the serpent deceived me so I ate."  Neither Adam or Eve were willing to accept PERSONAL RESPONSIBILITY FOR THEIR BEHAVIOR.  Each in turn shifted the blame to another.  Man has been doing that ever since and one of the major ways he has done that is to create the myth of an eternal, nearly all powerful, nearly omnipresent, supernatural entity .that causes all of man’s problems.  In other words "the devil/satan/serpent made me do it."   However, the Bible knows nothing of this nonsense and instead clearly and permanently places the blame for all of man’s problems squarely on man:
"Inner man (Paul’s old man) is deceitful above all, And desperately wicked; Who can know it? (Jeremiah 17:9)   Where do wars and fights among you come from ? Do they not come from your desires for pleasure that war in your members? You lust and do not have. You murder and covet and cannot obtain. You fight and war. Yet you do not have because you do not ask. You ask and do not receive, because you ask amiss, that you may spend on your pleasures. Adulterers and adulteresses! Do you not know that friendship with the world is enmity with God? Whoever therefore wants to be a friend of the world makes himself an enemy of God. Or do you think that the Scripture says in vain, "The spirit (of man) which dwells in us lusts to jealously"? (James 4:1-5)

If the devil makes us do it, then Jeremiah and James certainly missed a prime opportunity to explain that fact to us.   The concept of an eternal, nearly all powerful, nearly omnipresent, supernatural entity ("fallen angel") that causes all of man’s problems is a creature of man’s "vain imagination;" something that he has invented to shift the responsibility of his behavior to another.  Christian, of all people, should understand this.   You ask:
Does it help us ‘connect’ more with our post-modern seekers?  Does it make Christianity less simplistic?

I do not know, but it certainly takes the blame for our behavior off of a mythological idol and places it squarely on us.  If man, especially Christians, would ever stop blaming "Satan" for everything and accept full and complete responsibility for our behavior we could change our world.  I think that would make Christianity much more palatable to all seeker, including post-modern.

Lloyd

Re: Demons and benefits

Hi Lloyd.  Good stuff!  I’m actually pretty impressed with how you dealt with that—though I’m glad you admit to ‘rereading’ the text.  I’m not sure I can deal with everything you’ve laid out, but I will make just a few comments.

As for Matthew 12:22-28. I think you’ve made a fundamental logical flaw.  Jesus’ point in this passage is that he cannot be casting demons out in Beelzebub’s name because otherwise the demons’ house would be a divided house and it would fall.  By the same logic, if Jesus were casting out demons (/curses) in God’s name that came from God, again, the house would be divided and would fall.  The entire point of the passage is to point out that Jesus is not ‘of the same house’ as the demons.  He is highlighting a clear opposition, in which he clearly has the upper hand.  This is why I’m wary of attributing the ‘curses’ to God.  No, humanity is besieged by Satan, and Jesus sets us free.  At least, that’s what I hear Jesus saying in this passage.

As for me being ‘emergent’ because I don’t think Deut 28:15 reveals the true nature of God… well, I don’t think labels are helpful, and I certainly don’t think I speak for anyone other than myself—but yes I do seem to display a certain freedom with the biblical text.  I take after Brueggemann, who is not afraid to acknowledge a plurality of images of Yahweh in the Hebrew Scriptures—images that are at times somewhat contradictory.  The image of Yahweh as a cursing God, who visits the father’s iniquities on the sons and the sons of the sons to the 27,000th generation (slight exaggeration, I know) is one that I find to be in deep tension with the ‘fullness of the Godhead’ revealed in Jesus—particularly with his work on the cross.

I really don’t know where to go further on this issue.  It seems to me that you have your ideas about what the text can and can’t say, and I have mine.  My views on spiritual warfare (which is, as I take it, what you are denying—apart from the ‘spiritual’ side of humankind, of course, but that is not what I mean) are deeply influenced by the work of Greg Boyd (particularly his book God at War which traces the motif of spiritual warfare throughout Scripture), and I feel that your rereading of the significant passages doesn’t ‘fit’ very well with the biblical worldviews.  Further, I’d be interested to hear how you think the mythological understanding of ‘messengers’ got started since it really didn’t start with "English speaking people" (indeed, this understanding has permeated Church teachings from the very beginning!).

All the best,

-Daniel-

Re: Demons and benefits

Hi Daniel,   Thank you.   It appears to me that perhaps there is a chance that you should get your "hearing" ajusted.  The point of this passage is that "if I cast out demons by the spirit of God, then the kingdom has come unto you."  If what you say is true, then why is it that "Baalzebub, the prince of demons" is identified as an idol "of man’s invention" instead of as a "fallen angel"?  Matthew certainly missed a great opportunity to tell the first century audience that the OT was wrong and Baalzebub was really a "fallen angel."   I do agree that the passage points out that Jesus was of a "different house’ than the "demons" and "Jesus clearly had the upper hand."   If I am wrong about "aggelov" (aggelos) and what you say is correct; will you then please explain for me why the tanslators translate "aggelov" as "messenger" in Matt 11:10, Mark 1:2, Luke 7:27 and 2Cor 12:7?  In these passages they actually translate the Greek "aggelov" into its English equivalent.  In the other passages they simply transliterate the word itself into an English "angel."   I did not say that the myth started with "English speaking people"  I said that  "English speaking people have arrived at that false conclusion as a result of the failure of our translators to translate instead of transliterating."  I do not know where or how it got started - it probably came from Greek mythology.    You wrote:

but that’s mostly because I’m not convinced God is a cursing God (not least, not like he’s portrayed in Deut 28:15).

Lloyd

Then how about Deut 28:28, which I also referred to?

Re: Demons and benefits

Just to add a couple more questions :-)

So do you have any sort of ontology established for your idea of "messenger" (which, of course, is the Greek word we are appealing when we use the term "angel")?  Is it a broad term or are there "messengers" with specific attributes and purposes?

How do you interpret Jesus’ words in Luke 10:18?

I’ll take my answers off-air.  Thanks.

Re: Demons and benefits

Hi gdargan,

"Messenger," as I see it, is a broad term and it has several applications as is evident from the several ways which "aggelos" is used in the NT.

How do you interpret Jesus’ words in Luke 10:18?

In context, I see this passage as the opening foray of, and a prophecy about the end of the war described in Revelation 12:7-11 which involved the "messengers" (Jesus and His disciples) of the New Covenant doing battle against the "messengers"  (apostate Jews) of the Old Covenant which ended with the fall/casting out of the apostates of the Old Covenant.

Lloyd

Re: The serpent was really Adam - demons

Yet both Mark and Luke tell us Jesus would not allow the demons to speak ‘because they knew that he was the Christ’. I really don’t think think these writers shared your emergent theology that demons were simply impersonal curses.

 The problem is that you have no passage that deals with a "fallen angel."

Actually there are quite a few that deal with their fall or their sin and judgment. We have Revelation 12 which deal with Satan and his angels being cast out of heaven. You have provided no evidence for your claim that heaven should be treated metaphorically. Paul’s reference to battle in the heavenly places is given in contrast to ‘flesh and blood’ and you have shown no reason why Paul or his Ephesian readers should interpret heavenly places as the temple cultus. It run counter to the plain meaning of the text.

Jude 1:6 And the angels who did not stay within their own position of authority, but left their proper dwelling, he has kept in eternal chains under gloomy darkness until the judgment of the great day.

Ezekiel refers to a guardian cherub being cast from Eden the mountain of God to the ground.

Yes, I agree that the messenger to Daniel was as genuine as the one who spoke to Mary.  However, contrary to your claim, I did not interpret the messenger in Daniel 10 "metaphorically."  I merely implied that the action concerning the "prince of Persia" did not take place in the "heavenly realm" and neither did the messenger’s actions concerning Mary.  Both events took place on earth in real time and space.

There is no reason to understand the battle as happening in heaven, though a battle between angels will certainly be a spiritual one. If the angel who spoke to Daniel was an angel as you seem to agree, how could a human prince of Persia hold him up for three weeks?

What is the basis for you claim that Michael was Christ?

Deacon

 

Re: The serpent was really Adam - demons

Hi Deacon,  

You wrote:
You have provided no evidence for your claim that heaven should be treated metaphorically.

Contrary to your erroneous assertion above I have provided "evidence that heaven should be treated metaphorically; you have simply rejected it."   The Old Testament has a great deal of information which conclusively establishes that "heaven" is often used as a metaphor for "earthy powers that be."  How much evidence do your want?   I wrote a 14 page paper documenting the use of "heaven" as metaphor or hyperbolic, and others have written books on that subject.  Surely you cannot be unaware of this.
Jude 1:6 And the angels who did not stay within their own position of authority, but left