Hi there.
I was reading through John’s gospel and I came across two instances where people didn’t know who the Son of Man was. First the blind man in John 9:35-36
‘Do you believe in the Son of Man?’ (Jesus)
‘Who is he sir?’ (formerly blind man)
and second the crowd in Jerusalem in John 12:34
‘Who is the Son of Man?’
Did those inquiring want to know the identity of the Son of man or were they not familiar with the terms use? I assume they were familiar with the term used in Daniel 7. Im a bit puzzled. Did they not make the association. Especially since Rome was the fourth empire to be ruling the middle east. I know Im reading backwards again instead of forwards from their perspective and its more about bringing the narrative into the present, but you get my jist.
I would love some feedback. Shot.
Ryan
Re: Who is the son of man?
It seems to me that there is enough in John’s Gospel to associate the term ‘Son of man’ with Daniel’s narrative - the emphasis on suffering, authority, judgment and glorification. But the term in itself does not automatically evoke Daniel 7: ‘son of man’ was a common Aramaic idiom of self-reference. It is only when it is linked with the language and imagery of Daniel’s vision that it can be said to have that specific thematic significance. So when Jesus asks, ‘Who do men say that the Son of man is?’ (eg. Matt. 16:13), he may only be saying, ‘Who do men say that I am?’ But when he goes on to say that the Son of man will suffer, be vindicated, and receive a kingdom (Matt. 16:21-28), he is clearly presenting his own story in terms of Daniel’s vision of the symbolic figure in human form who represents the suffering saints of the Most High.
So part of the answer to your question may be that the term ‘son of man’ was not so clearly associated with Daniel 7 in people’s minds.
I also don’t know if it’s fair to assume that in the popular mind Rome was identified with the fourth beast.