Here’s the problem I have with using this passage to establish some form of original sin: the logic used would seem to imply that through Jesus all men will be saved (see especially v. 18). Paul uses the words “many” and “all” to describe both those who are condemned and those who are justified. On what basis, then, is this chapter a support for the idea that “all men” (literally understood) are under condemnation to death for sin, but not “all men” will be acquitted and enjoy eternal life?