Interesting questions.

John says that the Word was with God and was God in the beginning, and that the Word “became flesh and dwelt among us” This passage suggests that Christ’s “wordness” is eternal from the beginning but his “fleshness” began at a particular moment in history. The incarnation was foreknown before the foundations of the world (Eph. 1:4, I Peter 1:20), but before the actual 1st century events the person of Christ must have been something other than flesh and blood.

I agree. I think there is a difference between the pre-incarnate logos and the flesh, the soul, that logos became in the first century, Jesus.

If Christ is inseparably both man and God, the incarnation event must have changed the eternal Christ in essence.

Was Jesus eternally inseparably both man and God? I don’t think so.

But how could that be the case if Christ is God and God is eternally the same? Did the eternal God in effect “possess” the body of Jesus, thereby transforming and eternalizing that body and merging it with eternal God-ness? And if the incarnation permanently fused God and man in the person of Christ, is it accurate to say that God suffered in the flesh and died on the cross?

I think it is more accurate to say that God’s son, who is in effect God in the flesh, suffered on the cross.

Your questions were very complicated and thought provoking, so I’m afraid my small answers are not that great. Can anyone else add some thoughts?