Now there’s a bit more breathing space, could you explain why tetelestai is an ‘emphatic form of the tense which doubly reinforces the sense of conclusion’? Isn’t it simply, as John says, the perfect of teleō - ‘it has been finished’? The force of the perfect in this context is simply that an action begun in the past has been completed in the present. 2 Tim. 4:7 is another example: ‘I have finished (teteleka) the race’.