All comments

A non-believer's lament...

Tim: Re: A non-believer's... (2 days ago)
Jacob: Re: A non-believer's... (2 days ago)
Tim: Re: A non-believer's... (2 days ago)
Jacob: Re: A non-believer's... (2 days ago)
Tim: Re: A non-believer's... (3 days ago)
john doyle: Re: A non-believer's... (3 days ago)
Jacob: Re: A non-believer's... (3 days ago)
john doyle: Re: A non-believer's... (3 days ago)

The Lost World of Genesis One - John H. Walton

john doyle: Re: Proposition 2: Ancient... (3 days ago)
john doyle: Proposition 2: Ancient... (3 days ago)
Syndicate content

Re: The Lord's prayer and its eschatological context

Re: The Lord's prayer and its eschatological context

Andrew’s argument is a variation on classic preterism - why not call a spade a spade? Virgil preteristically asks: why pray for the kingdom to come when it is already here? The answer: because there is a past, present and future aspect to the kingdom.

We can continually pray for more of God’s kingdom to come - and to be expressed in many situations in our lives and across the earth.

As far as the kingdom having already come (when, precisely, Andrew?), the term is used in a variety of ways in the NT; Andrew wants the term to refer exclusively to a judgement and deliverance which took place in the 1st century. The NT won’t fit into that straitjacket - as much as Andrew wants it to.

The coming of the Son of Man’ is a term and phenomenon not exclusively applied to the destruction of the Temple in AD 70, and nowhere as far as I can see applied to judgement on Rome. The groundwork on which Andrew constructs his theological and exegetical detail is flawed.

The Lord's prayer and its eschatological context By: Andrew (20 replies) 8 March, 2007 - 13:28