I’m wondering where this thread (and the conversation it has generated on the ‘Am I sure?’ thread) is coming from - and where it might be going. The issue of addressing prayer to Jesus is a subset of a larger question about Jesus being perceived in the NT as human, divine or both. Addressing prayer to Jesus (or not) connects with other issues: was the word ‘Lord’ in relation to Jesus (before and after his resurrection) an implicit recognition of his divinity, or was it no more than a human term of respect? Does the NT use the phrase ‘Son of God’ in an undeveloped OT sense, or as one which added to the former sense new associations of divinity? And did God (the Father) require a human sacrifice to atone for Israel’s (and the world’s) sin - or did he participate personally in that sacrifice?

I’ve a feeling that previous, very extended conversations about the trinity and the humanity/divinity of Jesus may be about to resurface - but I’d like to ask Paul: what is the significance for yourself of affirming that prayer is only made to the Father and not to Jesus? What are the consequences which follow from making this distinction? I imagine, if the logic is followed through, you come to a very different kind of Christian faith from the historic variety. I’m not objecting to that; I’d just like to know!