You write that the "satanically inspired oppressor of the people of God…is so clearly Rome," yet is it really that clear? Is ancient Rome really is THE final ‘manifestation’ of the Great Babylon? Apparently this was not clear to the church fathers, nor the Reformers, nor the vast majority of students of Scripture since.  There are numerous problems with the view that Rome fulfills the prophecies of ‘mystery Babylon’ (however you render that) in the book of Revelation.  See commentaries by Ladd, Tenney, Osbourne, etc.   This is not to deny that Rome fits the bill in manner of speaking, and anticipates the great apostasy to come (cf. 1Pe.5:13). 

"So what are your reasons for thinking that a story about judgment on Israel through the instrumentality of a Godless political power, about the renewal of the people in the Spirit and the incorporation of foreigners, about the giving of kingdom to the Son of man, about the vindication of those who suffer out of loyalty to God, about the overthrow of the satanically inspired oppressor of the people of God, which is so clearly Rome, is not ‘fulfilled’ in the events of the early centuries? Why do we still have to wait until the end of history?"

Because it isn’t clear, and wasn’t clear, to the church throughout history.  You’d think God’s people would recognize their own vindication and the full realization of the prophets and apostles.