I don’t know that I buy the notion that Paul would treat homosexuality and prostitution in the same way. The Bible speaks out against prostitution for two reasons: First, on a practical level, it is a threat to monogamous relationships and families, since it provides a relatively easy-to-access expression of promiscuity. Second, on a more human and personal level, it devalues both the prostitute and the “customer.” Taking something as sacred as sex and recasting it into something for money is an insult to the act itself, but it also makes the prostitute into a slave, and the “customer” into someone who does not recognize the humanity in the person (s)he is sleeping with. It’s just bad all around.

However, in homosexual relationships today, the ones that are candidates for “approval” by the Church are characterized by love, monogamy, mutual respect, open communication, commitment, etc… In heterosexual relationships, I think we all agree, an expression of these qualities can take the form of sex, and some of us (myself included) think that if a homosexual relationship is characterized by these traits, it can/should be expressed sexually. However, NONE of these qualities are present in the “relationship” between a prostitute and the “customer.” There is a clear difference here, and it is not clear to me how Paul could ignore that difference, so I think he wouldn’t.

So, until the link between prostitution and homosexuality characterized by monogamy is made (which, I contend, is impossible), I don’t think we can use it as an argument against GLBT people and their relationships.